ACLS Provider Certification Exam description of the exam 1 / 300 What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR? a. 15:2 b. 30:2 c. 10:1 d. 5:1 Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place. Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place. 2 / 300 What is the initial dose of epinephrine during cardiac arrest? a. 1 mg b. 0.5 mg c. 2 mg d. 10 mg Incorrect. Administered every 3-5 minutes to restore circulation by increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure. Correct. Administered every 3-5 minutes to restore circulation by increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure. 3 / 300 What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute? a. 80-100 b. 100-120 c. 120-140 d. 140-160 Incorrect. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed. Correct. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed. 4 / 300 What is the preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement? a. Auscultation b. Chest X-ray c. Waveform capnography d. Observation Incorrect. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?. Correct. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?. 5 / 300 What drug is used for torsades de pointes during ACLS? a. Amiodarone b. Magnesium sulfate c. Epinephrine d. Atropine Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias. Correct. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias. 6 / 300 How often should epinephrine be administered during cardiac arrest? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 3-5 minutes c. Every 7-10 minutes d. Every 15 minutes Incorrect. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation. Correct. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation. 7 / 300 What is the first step in managing a patient with asystole? a. Defibrillation b. Epinephrine c. Chest compressions d. Identify the rhythm Incorrect. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm. Correct. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm. 8 / 300 What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR? a. 10-20 mmHg b. 20-30 mmHg c. >10 mmHg d. 30-40 mmHg Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation. Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation. 9 / 300 What is the dose of atropine for bradycardia? a. 0.5 mg b. 1 mg c. 3 mg d. 5 mg Incorrect. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate. Correct. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate. 10 / 300 What is the maximum energy dose for defibrillation in adults? a. 120 J b. 200 J c. 360 J d. 100 J Incorrect. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations. Correct. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations. 11 / 300 What is the preferred route for drug administration during ACLS? a. Intraosseous b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous Incorrect. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable. Correct. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable. 12 / 300 How long should a pulse check take during CPR? a. 5 seconds b. 5-10 seconds c. 10-15 seconds d. 15-20 seconds Incorrect. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion. Correct. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion. 13 / 300 What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia? a. Adenosine b. Synchronized cardioversion c. Defibrillation d. Amiodarone Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm. Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm. 14 / 300 What is the dose of adenosine for stable SVT? a. 3 mg b. 6 mg c. 12 mg d. 18 mg Incorrect. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias. Correct. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias. 15 / 300 What is the shockable rhythm in cardiac arrest? a. Asystole b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Pulseless electrical activity d. Sinus rhythm Incorrect. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. Correct. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. 16 / 300 What is the recommended oxygen saturation target during ROSC? a. 88-92% b. 92-96% c. 94-99% d. 1 Incorrect. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia. Correct. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia. 17 / 300 What is the next step after identifying a shockable rhythm? a. Epinephrine b. Chest compressions c. Defibrillation d. Atropine Incorrect. Delivers an electrical shock to depolarize the heart and restore a normal rhythm. Correct. Delivers an electrical shock to depolarize the heart and restore a normal rhythm. 18 / 300 What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine? a. Synchronized cardioversion b. Transcutaneous pacing c. Epinephrine infusion d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails. Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails. 19 / 300 How long should you pause chest compressions to deliver a shock? a. <5 seconds b. 5-10 seconds c. 10-15 seconds d. 15-20 seconds Incorrect. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Correct. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs. 20 / 300 What is the initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia? a. 150 mg b. 300 mg c. 450 mg d. 600 mg Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT. 21 / 300 What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest? a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. 22 / 300 What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA? a. Defibrillation b. Epinephrine c. Atropine d. Amiodarone Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes. Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes. 23 / 300 How often should you switch chest compressors during CPR? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 5 minutes d. Every 10 minutes Incorrect. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions. Correct. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions. 24 / 300 What is the compression rate for CPR in adults? a. 60-80/min b. 80-100/min c. 100-120/min d. 120-140/min Incorrect. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling. Correct. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling. 25 / 300 What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT? a. Synchronized cardioversion b. Defibrillation c. Epinephrine d. Chest compressions Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm. Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm. 26 / 300 What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved? a. Stop monitoring b. Assess oxygen saturation c. Start CPR d. Perform defibrillation Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care. Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care. 27 / 300 What is the recommended temperature range for TTM in ROSC? a. 30-32°C b. 32-36°C c. 28-30°C d. 35-37°C Incorrect. Targeted temperature management improves neurological outcomes by preventing further brain injury. Correct. Targeted temperature management improves neurological outcomes by preventing further brain injury. 28 / 300 What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia? a. Adenosine b. Amiodarone c. Atropine d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest. Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest. 29 / 300 How often should a rhythm check occur during CPR? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 5 minutes d. Every 10 minutes Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches. Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches. 30 / 300 What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis? a. 0.3 mg IM b. 1 mg IV c. 0.5 mg IM d. 2 mg IV Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption. Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption. 31 / 300 What is the most common cause of PEA? a. Hypoxia b. Hyperkalemia c. Tamponade d. Tension pneumothorax Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation. Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation. 32 / 300 What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful? a. Administer atropine b. Increase energy level c. Continue CPR d. Administer magnesium Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC. Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC. 33 / 300 What is the goal oxygen saturation during ACLS care? a. 88-92% b. 92-96% c. 94-99% d. 1 Incorrect. Maintaining this range prevents hypoxia while minimizing the risks of hyperoxia and oxidative injury. Correct. Maintaining this range prevents hypoxia while minimizing the risks of hyperoxia and oxidative injury. 34 / 300 How soon should defibrillation be delivered for VF/VT? a. Within 10 seconds b. Within 20 seconds c. Within 1 minute d. Within 3 minutes Incorrect. Early defibrillation is critical for survival, especially in shockable rhythms like VF/VT. Correct. Early defibrillation is critical for survival, especially in shockable rhythms like VF/VT. 35 / 300 What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS? a. 3 mg/kg b. 4 mg/kg c. 1 mg/kg d. 2 mg/kg Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT. 36 / 300 What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available? a. Intramuscular b. Intrathecal c. Intraosseous d. Subcutaneous Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained. Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained. 37 / 300 What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR? a. Every 2 seconds b. Every 4 seconds c. Every 6 seconds d. Every 8 seconds Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute. Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute. 38 / 300 What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions? a. ROSC b. PETCO2 >10 mmHg c. Improved pulse d. Dilated pupils Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation. Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation. 39 / 300 What is the treatment for severe hyperkalemia during ACLS? a. Calcium gluconate b. Amiodarone c. Lidocaine d. Atropine Incorrect. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia. Correct. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia. 40 / 300 How many cycles of CPR are recommended before rhythm reassessment? a. 2 cycles b. 4 cycles c. 6 cycles d. 8 cycles Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm. Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm. 41 / 300 What is the preferred drug for refractory ventricular fibrillation? a. Amiodarone b. Lidocaine c. Epinephrine d. Atropine Incorrect. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium. Correct. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium. 42 / 300 What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR without an advanced airway? a. 10/min b. 12/min c. 20/min d. 30/min Incorrect. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation. Correct. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation. 43 / 300 Which condition is part of the H's and T's for reversible causes of cardiac arrest? a. Hypothermia b. Hyperoxia c. Hypertension d. Hyperglycemia Incorrect. Hypothermia is a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation. Correct. Hypothermia is a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation. 44 / 300 What is the proper dose of naloxone for suspected opioid overdose? a. 0.1 mg IV b. 0.4-2 mg IV c. 4-6 mg IV d. 10 mg IV Incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, restoring respiratory effort in patients with respiratory depression. Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, restoring respiratory effort in patients with respiratory depression. 45 / 300 What is the best indicator of ROSC during CPR? a. Increase in PETCO2 b. Improved skin color c. Detectable pulse d. Normal blood pressure Incorrect. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange. Correct. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange. 46 / 300 What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax? a. Chest compressions b. Needle decompression c. Intubation d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation. Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation. 47 / 300 What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care? a. Normalize heart rate b. Prevent seizures c. Optimize oxygenation d. Induce hypothermia Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia. Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia. 48 / 300 What is the maximum time allowed for interruption of chest compressions? a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. 49 / 300 What is the appropriate dose of magnesium for torsades de pointes? a. 1-2 g b. 2-4 g c. 0.5-1 g d. 4-6 g Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes. Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes. 50 / 300 What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation? a. Atrial flutter b. Asystole c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Junctional rhythm Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity. 51 / 300 Which drug can increase the heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia? a. Adenosine b. Atropine c. Epinephrine d. Lidocaine Incorrect. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia. Correct. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia. 52 / 300 What is the recommended dose of dopamine infusion for bradycardia? a. 2-5 mcg/kg/min b. 5-10 mcg/kg/min c. 10-20 mcg/kg/min d. 20-30 mcg/kg/min Incorrect. Dopamine is used when atropine is ineffective, improving heart rate and contractility by stimulating beta receptors. Correct. Dopamine is used when atropine is ineffective, improving heart rate and contractility by stimulating beta receptors. 53 / 300 What should be done immediately after defibrillation? a. Check the pulse b. Start CPR c. Give epinephrine d. Administer oxygen Incorrect. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC. Correct. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC. 54 / 300 What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT? a. Epinephrine b. Amiodarone c. Lidocaine d. Magnesium sulfate Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation. Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation. 55 / 300 Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern? a. Atrial flutter b. Atrial fibrillation c. Ventricular tachycardia d. Sinus tachycardia Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability. Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability. 56 / 300 How often should you assess the rhythm during ongoing CPR? a. Every 2 minutes b. Every 4 minutes c. Every 6 minutes d. Every 10 minutes Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms. Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes during pauses in CPR to evaluate for shockable rhythms. 57 / 300 What is the compression fraction goal during CPR? a. >60% b. >70% c. >80% d. >90% Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation. Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation. 58 / 300 Which rhythm is not shockable? a. Asystole b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Pulseless VT d. Polymorphic VT Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine. Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine. 59 / 300 What is the recommended initial treatment for narrow-complex SVT? a. Vagal maneuvers b. Amiodarone c. Atropine d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits. Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits. 60 / 300 What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients? a. 2 J/kg b. 4 J/kg c. 6 J/kg d. 8 J/kg Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response. 61 / 300 What is the first action when you see an unresponsive patient? a. Check for pulse b. Shout for help c. Open airway d. Start CPR Incorrect. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available. Correct. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available. 62 / 300 What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation? a. Adenosine b. Synchronized cardioversion c. Amiodarone d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation. 63 / 300 Which rhythm requires transcutaneous pacing if symptomatic? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Second-degree AV block type II c. Atrial flutter d. Ventricular tachycardia Incorrect. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing. Correct. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing. 64 / 300 What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)? a. 31-33°C b. 32-36°C c. 36-38°C d. 28-30°C Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C. Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C. 65 / 300 How many chest compressions should be delivered per minute in high-quality CPR? a. 50-70 b. 80-100 c. 100-120 d. 120-140 Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling. Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling. 66 / 300 What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone in cardiac arrest? a. 150 mg b. 300 mg c. 100 mg d. 200 mg Incorrect. Amiodarone stabilizes the myocardium and is given as a bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Amiodarone stabilizes the myocardium and is given as a bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT. 67 / 300 What is the appropriate interval for delivering epinephrine during cardiac arrest? a. Every 2-3 minutes b. Every 3-5 minutes c. Every 6-8 minutes d. Every 10 minutes Incorrect. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure. Correct. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure. 68 / 300 What is the dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT? a. 0.1 mg/kg b. 0.2 mg/kg c. 0.3 mg/kg d. 0.5 mg/kg Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush. Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush. 69 / 300 What is the initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia? a. Atropine b. Dopamine infusion c. Transcutaneous pacing d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation. Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation. 70 / 300 How often should you reassess pulse during CPR? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 3 minutes d. Every 5 minutes Incorrect. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation. Correct. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation. 71 / 300 What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer? a. 15:02:00 b. 20:02:00 c. 1900-01-01 06:02:00 d. 10:01:00 Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR. Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR. 72 / 300 What rhythm is described as a chaotic, irregular deflection with no P or QRS waves? a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Atrial fibrillation c. Asystole d. PEA Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation. Correct. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation. 73 / 300 What is the correct joules dose for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, regular tachycardia? a. 50-100 J b. 150-200 J c. 200-300 J d. 300-360 J Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable. 74 / 300 How should chest compressions be performed in pregnant patients? a. Normal position b. Slight left tilt c. Supine d. Right lateral tilt Incorrect. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR. Correct. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR. 75 / 300 What is the preferred treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse? a. Defibrillation b. Synchronized cardioversion c. Epinephrine d. CPR Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. 76 / 300 How many breaths per minute should be delivered to an adult during advanced airway CPR? a. 6-8 breaths b. 10-12 breaths c. 14-16 breaths d. 18-20 breaths Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation. Correct. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation. 77 / 300 What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia? a. 1 mg b. 2 mg c. 3 mg d. 4 mg Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects. Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects. 78 / 300 Which condition is included in the "T's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes? a. Thrombosis b. Thyroid storm c. Tachycardia d. Tumor Incorrect. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately. Correct. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately. 79 / 300 What is the recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation? a. 2 J/kg b. 4 J/kg c. 6 J/kg d. 8 J/kg Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed. 80 / 300 What is the best method to monitor effective ventilation during CPR? a. Observe chest rise b. PETCO2 monitoring c. Oxygen saturation d. Respiratory rate Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring ensures effective ventilation and provides feedback on the quality of chest compressions during CPR. Correct. PETCO2 monitoring ensures effective ventilation and provides feedback on the quality of chest compressions during CPR. 81 / 300 What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers? a. 1900-01-01 06:02:00 b. 15:02:00 c. 20:02:00 d. 10:01:00 Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers. Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers. 82 / 300 What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest? a. 0.01 mg/kg b. 0.1 mg/kg c. 1 mg/kg d. 0.5 mg/kg Incorrect. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion. Correct. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion. 83 / 300 What is the most reliable indicator of effective CPR? a. ROSC b. Detectable pulse c. PETCO2 >10 mmHg d. Pupil constriction Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR. Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR. 84 / 300 Which rhythm is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac arrest? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Asystole d. Junctional rhythm Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation. Correct. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation. 85 / 300 What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive? a. Chest compressions b. Back blows c. Heimlich maneuver d. Intubation Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant. Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant. 86 / 300 What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR for adults with an advanced airway? a. 6-8 breaths/min b. 10 breaths/min c. 12 breaths/min d. 15 breaths/min Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation. Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation. 87 / 300 How should you position a patient for defibrillation? a. Lateral position b. Supine position c. Prone position d. Sitting position Incorrect. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks. Correct. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks. 88 / 300 What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia? a. Vagal maneuvers b. Amiodarone c. Adenosine d. Lidocaine Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia. Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia. 89 / 300 What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator? a. 100-120 J b. 120-200 J c. 200-300 J d. 300-360 J Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity. Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity. 90 / 300 What is the recommended maximum interval for chest compression interruptions? a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds Incorrect. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes. Correct. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes. 91 / 300 What is the preferred initial action for pulseless electrical activity? a. Chest compressions b. Defibrillation c. Epinephrine d. Identify the rhythm Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes. Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes. 92 / 300 What is the drug of choice for wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients? a. Lidocaine b. Amiodarone c. Adenosine d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients. Correct. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients. 93 / 300 Which rhythm is non-shockable during cardiac arrest? a. Ventricular tachycardia b. Pulseless electrical activity c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Polymorphic VT Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms. Correct. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms. 94 / 300 What is the ideal chest compression fraction for high-quality CPR? a. >50% b. >60% c. >70% d. >80% Incorrect. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions. Correct. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions. 95 / 300 How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF? a. Within 30 seconds b. Within 1 minute c. Within 3 minutes d. Within 5 minutes Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC. Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC. 96 / 300 What is the proper technique for opening the airway of a trauma patient? a. Head tilt-chin lift b. Jaw thrust c. Heimlich maneuver d. Suctioning Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury. Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury. 97 / 300 What is the appropriate treatment for severe bradycardia in pediatric patients unresponsive to atropine? a. Synchronized cardioversion b. Transcutaneous pacing c. Epinephrine infusion d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective. Correct. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective. 98 / 300 What is the appropriate dose of lidocaine for refractory VF? a. 0.5 mg/kg b. 1 mg/kg c. 1.5 mg/kg d. 2 mg/kg Incorrect. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO. Correct. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO. 99 / 300 How often should team roles be rotated during CPR to avoid fatigue? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 5 minutes d. Every 10 minutes Incorrect. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions. Correct. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions. 100 / 300 What is the primary focus during the first 10 minutes of post-cardiac arrest care? a. Cooling the patient b. Stabilizing hemodynamics c. Administering epinephrine d. Performing CPR Incorrect. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC. Correct. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC. 101 / 300 What is the first step when you encounter an unresponsive adult? a. Check pulse b. Activate EMS c. Deliver a shock d. Start chest compressions Incorrect. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation. Correct. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation. 102 / 300 What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults? a. 1-2 inches b. 2-2.4 inches c. At least 3 inches d. No specific depth Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks. Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks. 103 / 300 What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved? a. Stop compressions b. Monitor oxygenation c. Administer atropine d. Continue defibrillation Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%. Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%. 104 / 300 What is the maximum pause duration between chest compressions? a. 2 seconds b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 15 seconds Incorrect. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC. Correct. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC. 105 / 300 What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest? a. 0.1 mg IV b. 1 mg IV c. 2 mg IV d. 5 mg IV Incorrect. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest. Correct. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest. 106 / 300 What is the first drug given for stable narrow-complex tachycardia? a. Adenosine b. Amiodarone c. Atropine d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction. Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction. 107 / 300 What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)? a. Increase metabolism b. Reduce brain injury c. Prevent seizures d. Improve heart rhythm Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC. Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC. 108 / 300 How should breaths be delivered with a bag-mask device? a. 1 breath every 2-3 seconds b. 1 breath every 5-6 seconds c. 1 breath every 8-10 seconds d. 1 breath every 12 seconds Incorrect. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation. Correct. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation. 109 / 300 What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia? a. Chest compressions b. Defibrillation c. Amiodarone d. Atropine Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity. Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity. 110 / 300 What is the compression rate for pediatric CPR? a. 60-80/min b. 90-100/min c. 100-120/min d. 120-140/min Incorrect. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR. Correct. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR. 111 / 300 Which rhythm is not shockable? a. Asystole b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Pulseless VT d. Polymorphic VT Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration. Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration. 112 / 300 What is the recommended dose of atropine for adult bradycardia? a. 0.25 mg b. 0.5 mg c. 1 mg d. 3 mg Incorrect. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation. Correct. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation. 113 / 300 How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient? a. Chest rise b. Oxygen saturation c. Waveform capnography d. Breath sounds Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels. Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels. 114 / 300 How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm? a. 1 cycle b. 2 cycles c. 5 cycles d. 8 cycles Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm. Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm. 115 / 300 What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR? a. <10 mmHg b. >10 mmHg c. 20-30 mmHg d. 40-50 mmHg Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output. Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output. 116 / 300 What is the primary treatment for VF during cardiac arrest? a. Defibrillation b. Epinephrine c. Chest compressions d. Atropine Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment. 117 / 300 How should you position an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury? a. Lateral position b. Prone position c. Jaw thrust position d. Supine position Incorrect. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury. Correct. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury. 118 / 300 What is the correct defibrillation dose for adults in VF? a. 50 J b. 100 J c. 120-200 J d. 360 J Incorrect. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF. Correct. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF. 119 / 300 Which drug is used for torsades de pointes? a. Epinephrine b. Amiodarone c. Magnesium sulfate d. Atropine Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. 120 / 300 What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR? a. Chest rise b. PETCO2 monitoring c. Oxygen saturation d. Heart rate Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions. Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions. 121 / 300 What is the recommended action for a witnessed cardiac arrest? a. Begin CPR b. Defibrillation c. Check for pulse d. Administer epinephrine Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT. Correct. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT. 122 / 300 What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway? a. 15:01:00 b. 15:02:00 c. 1900-01-01 06:02:00 d. 10:01:00 Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present. Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present. 123 / 300 What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone for VF? a. 150 mg b. 300 mg c. 100 mg d. 200 mg Incorrect. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT. 124 / 300 How many breaths per minute should be delivered during CPR with advanced airway? a. 4-6 breaths/min b. 6-8 breaths/min c. 10-12 breaths/min d. 12-15 breaths/min Incorrect. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation. Correct. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation. 125 / 300 What is the goal compression fraction for high-quality CPR? a. >50% b. >60% c. >70% d. >80% Incorrect. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions. Correct. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions. 126 / 300 What is the primary intervention for symptomatic bradycardia? a. Amiodarone b. Atropine c. Epinephrine d. Dopamine infusion Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation. Correct. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation. 127 / 300 What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation. Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation. 128 / 300 What is the compression depth for infant CPR? a. 1/3 depth of chest b. 1/2 depth of chest c. 2 inches d. 3 inches Incorrect. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury. Correct. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury. 129 / 300 What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest? a. 0.01 mg/kg b. 0.1 mg/kg c. 1 mg/kg d. 2 mg/kg Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion. Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion. 130 / 300 How should you manage a patient with a suspected opioid overdose? a. Administer naloxone b. Administer epinephrine c. Start defibrillation d. Perform intubation Incorrect. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring normal respiratory function. Correct. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring normal respiratory function. 131 / 300 What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation? a. Asystole b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Pulseless VT d. Atrial fibrillation Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. 132 / 300 What is the next action after ROSC is achieved? a. Reassess rhythm b. Start TTM c. Optimize oxygenation d. Administer epinephrine Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on maintaining oxygenation and avoiding hypoxia or hyperoxia to protect organ function. Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on maintaining oxygenation and avoiding hypoxia or hyperoxia to protect organ function. 133 / 300 How should you assess effective CPR in real-time? a. Oxygen saturation b. PETCO2 monitoring c. Skin color d. Blood pressure Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides continuous feedback on the quality of chest compressions and the effectiveness of resuscitation. Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides continuous feedback on the quality of chest compressions and the effectiveness of resuscitation. 134 / 300 What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT? a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Atropine d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node. Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node. 135 / 300 What is the proper energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation? a. 50 J b. 120-200 J c. 300 J d. 360 J Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation. 136 / 300 What is the appropriate action for PEA? a. Chest compressions b. Defibrillation c. Administer amiodarone d. Intubation Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes. Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes. 137 / 300 How should you position a pregnant patient during resuscitation? a. Supine b. Left lateral tilt c. Prone d. Sitting Incorrect. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation. Correct. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation. 138 / 300 What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults? a. 3 mg b. 6 mg c. 12 mg d. 18 mg Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias. Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias. 139 / 300 How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR? a. Every 30 seconds b. Every 1 minute c. Every 2 minutes d. Every 5 minutes Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms. Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms. 140 / 300 What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care? a. 88-92% b. 92-96% c. 94-98% d. 1 Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia. Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia. 141 / 300 What is the recommended action for a patient in asystole? a. Defibrillation b. Start compressions c. Administer atropine d. Perform cardioversion Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine. Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine. 142 / 300 What is the target oxygen saturation during CPR? a. 88-92% b. 92-96% c. 94-99% d. 1 Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia. Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia. 143 / 300 What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway? a. 4 breaths/min b. 6-8 breaths/min c. 10 breaths/min d. 12 breaths/min Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions. Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions. 144 / 300 How many seconds should a pulse check take during cardiac arrest? a. 2 seconds b. 5 seconds c. 5-10 seconds d. 15 seconds Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. 145 / 300 What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest? a. Epinephrine b. Defibrillation c. Atropine d. Amiodarone Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm. 146 / 300 What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR? a. At least 1 inch b. 1/3 the chest depth c. 2 inches d. 1/2 the chest depth Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury. Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury. 147 / 300 What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes? a. 1-2 g IV b. 2-4 g IV c. 3-5 g IV d. 5-7 g IV Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively. Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively. 148 / 300 What is the correct response if a shockable rhythm persists after the first shock? a. Administer atropine b. Start CPR c. Increase shock energy d. Administer naloxone Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC. Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC. 149 / 300 Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest? a. Pulseless VT b. Asystole c. PEA d. Atrial fibrillation Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. 150 / 300 What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT? a. Vagal maneuvers b. Synchronized cardioversion c. Adenosine d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart. 151 / 300 What is the primary focus during the first few minutes of ROSC? a. Start CPR b. Optimize ventilation c. Administer atropine d. Initiate cooling Incorrect. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are critical to preventing hypoxia or hyperoxia after ROSC. Correct. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are critical to preventing hypoxia or hyperoxia after ROSC. 152 / 300 What is the correct dose of dopamine for bradycardia? a. 2-5 mcg/kg/min b. 5-10 mcg/kg/min c. 10-20 mcg/kg/min d. 20-30 mcg/kg/min Incorrect. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine. Correct. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine. 153 / 300 How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway? a. Pause for breaths b. Continuous compressions c. Compress every 2 seconds d. Wait for pulse checks Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place. Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place. 154 / 300 What is the correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in unstable VT? a. 50 J b. 100 J c. 120-200 J d. 360 J Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia. 155 / 300 Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes? a. Hypothermia b. Hypertension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypernatremia Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts. Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts. 156 / 300 What is the next step if VF persists after 2 defibrillation attempts? a. Administer atropine b. Continue CPR and give amiodarone c. Administer naloxone d. Perform cardioversion Incorrect. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm. Correct. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm. 157 / 300 What is the most common cause of PEA? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypoxia c. Tamponade d. Hypoglycemia Incorrect. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation. Correct. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation. 158 / 300 How often should chest compressors switch roles to avoid fatigue? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 5 minutes d. Every 10 minutes Incorrect. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained. Correct. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained. 159 / 300 What is the initial dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT? a. 0.1 mg/kg b. 0.2 mg/kg c. 0.3 mg/kg d. 0.5 mg/kg Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush. Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush. 160 / 300 What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR? a. Every 30 seconds b. Every 1 minute c. Every 2 minutes d. Every 5 minutes Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation. Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation. 161 / 300 What is the proper position for chest compressions on an adult? a. Above the sternum b. Lower half of the sternum c. Xiphoid process d. Middle of the chest Incorrect. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures. Correct. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures. 162 / 300 What is the primary treatment for symptomatic bradycardia? a. Defibrillation b. Atropine c. Amiodarone d. Synchronized cardioversion Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for treating symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate through vagal inhibition. Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for treating symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate through vagal inhibition. 163 / 300 How should you treat VF if it persists after 3 shocks? a. Administer lidocaine b. Administer epinephrine c. Stop CPR d. Administer naloxone Incorrect. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF. Correct. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF. 164 / 300 What is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for pediatric CPR? a. 60-80/min b. 90-100/min c. 100-120/min d. 120-140/min Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients. Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients. 165 / 300 What is the initial step in the BLS survey? a. Check for a pulse b. Activate EMS c. Assess responsiveness d. Open the airway Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey. Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey. 166 / 300 What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest? a. 0.5 mg b. 1 mg c. 2 mg d. 5 mg Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion. Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion. 167 / 300 What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia? a. 50-100 J b. 120-200 J c. 200-300 J d. 360 J Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended. Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended. 168 / 300 Which rhythm requires defibrillation? a. Asystole b. Pulseless VT c. Atrial fibrillation d. PEA Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm. Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm. 169 / 300 What is the primary intervention for ROSC? a. Initiate cooling b. Stabilize ventilation c. Administer atropine d. Defibrillation Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia. Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia. 170 / 300 How often should you deliver breaths during CPR with an advanced airway? a. Every 2 seconds b. Every 6-8 seconds c. Every 10 seconds d. Every 15 seconds Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions. Correct. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions. 171 / 300 How should you treat a patient in asystole? a. Defibrillation b. Chest compressions c. Synchronized cardioversion d. Give lidocaine Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes. Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes. 172 / 300 What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified? a. Defibrillation b. Start chest compressions c. Administer amiodarone d. Check for pulse Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity. Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity. 173 / 300 What is the proper dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes? a. 0.5 g IV b. 1-2 g IV c. 2-3 g IV d. 4-6 g IV Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. 174 / 300 Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT? a. Atropine b. Adenosine c. Lidocaine d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node. Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node. 175 / 300 What is the maximum pause allowed for chest compressions during CPR? a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion. Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion. 176 / 300 What is the initial defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest? a. 2 J/kg b. 4 J/kg c. 6 J/kg d. 8 J/kg Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks. 177 / 300 How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR? a. 2 fingers on chest b. Full hand compression c. Thumbs encircling the chest d. Palm-only compression Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR. Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR. 178 / 300 How many rescuers are required for high-quality CPR with advanced airway management? a. 1 rescuer b. 2 rescuers c. 3 rescuers d. 4 rescuers Incorrect. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation. Correct. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation. 179 / 300 What is the most common reversible cause of cardiac arrest? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypovolemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation. Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation. 180 / 300 What is the recommended compression fraction for effective CPR? a. >50% b. >60% c. >70% d. >80% Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions. Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions. 181 / 300 What is the recommended first action for an unresponsive infant? a. Check for pulse b. Call for help c. Open the airway d. Begin chest compressions Incorrect. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment. Correct. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment. 182 / 300 What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults? a. At least 1 inch b. 2-2.4 inches c. 3 inches d. 4 inches Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury. Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury. 183 / 300 How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR? a. Every 30 seconds b. Every 1 minute c. Every 2 minutes d. Every 5 minutes Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions. Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions. 184 / 300 What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest? a. 0.01 mg/kg b. 0.1 mg/kg c. 1 mg/kg d. 2 mg/kg Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion. Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion. 185 / 300 Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation? a. Atrial flutter b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Asystole d. PEA Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity. 186 / 300 What is the initial treatment for pulseless electrical activity (PEA)? a. Defibrillation b. Chest compressions c. Amiodarone d. Atropine Incorrect. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation. Correct. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation. 187 / 300 What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults? a. 3 mg b. 6 mg c. 12 mg d. 18 mg Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT. Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT. 188 / 300 What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia? a. 2 mg b. 3 mg c. 5 mg d. 10 mg Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults. Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults. 189 / 300 How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR? a. Every 1 minute b. Every 2 minutes c. Every 3 minutes d. Every 5 minutes Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained. Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained. 190 / 300 What is the target oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care? a. 88-92% b. 92-96% c. 94-98% d. 1 Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress. Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress. 191 / 300 What is the first drug administered during cardiac arrest? a. Amiodarone b. Epinephrine c. Lidocaine d. Magnesium sulfate Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest. Correct. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest. 192 / 300 What is the appropriate energy setting for defibrillation in adults? a. 100 J b. 120-200 J c. 300 J d. 360 J Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT. 193 / 300 How should an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury be positioned? a. Prone b. Supine c. Jaw thrust d. Left lateral tilt Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury. Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury. 194 / 300 What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with two rescuers? a. 15:02:00 b. 1900-01-01 06:02:00 c. 10:01:00 d. 20:02:00 Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation. Correct. A 15:2 ratio is used during pediatric CPR with two rescuers to optimize ventilation and circulation. 195 / 300 What is the first intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF? a. Chest compressions b. Defibrillation c. Amiodarone d. Epinephrine Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF. Correct. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF. 196 / 300 How should you confirm the placement of an endotracheal tube? a. Oxygen saturation b. Waveform capnography c. Breath sounds d. Chest rise Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels. Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels. 197 / 300 What is the correct dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes? a. 1-2 g IV b. 2-4 g IV c. 3-5 g IV d. 5-7 g IV Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and terminate torsades de pointes. Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and terminate torsades de pointes. 198 / 300 What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR? a. ROSC b. Skin color c. PETCO2 monitoring d. Heart rate Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR. Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR. 199 / 300 Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest? a. Hypothermia b. Hypertension c. Hyperglycemia d. Hypoglycemia Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation. Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation. 200 / 300 How soon should defibrillation be attempted in a witnessed VF arrest? a. Within 10 seconds b. Within 30 seconds c. Within 1 minute d. Within 5 minutes Incorrect. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly. Correct. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly. 201 / 300 The recommended compression depth for adult CPR is 2-2.4 inches. a. True b. False Incorrect. Compressing to a depth of 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate circulation without causing damage to internal organs. Correct. Compressing to a depth of 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate circulation without causing damage to internal organs. 202 / 300 Ventricular fibrillation is a non-shockable rhythm. a. True b. False Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm and requires immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm. Correct. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a shockable rhythm and requires immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm. 203 / 300 Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute. a. True b. False Incorrect. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion. Correct. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion. 204 / 300 PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions. a. True b. False Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation. Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation. 205 / 300 The initial dose of epinephrine for cardiac arrest is 1 mg IV. a. True b. False Incorrect. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion. Correct. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion. 206 / 300 Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse. 207 / 300 Hypovolemia is one of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation. Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation. 208 / 300 Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment. Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment. 209 / 300 The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2. a. True b. False Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway. Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway. 210 / 300 Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes. a. True b. False Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium. Correct. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium. 211 / 300 Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock. a. True b. False Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock. Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock. 212 / 300 Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement. a. True b. False Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation. Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation. 213 / 300 Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine. Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine. 214 / 300 The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg. a. True b. False Incorrect. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg. Correct. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg. 215 / 300 Targeted temperature management (TTM) aims to reduce the risk of brain injury post-ROSC. a. True b. False Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation. Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation. 216 / 300 The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation. a. True b. False Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR. Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR. 217 / 300 During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted. a. True b. False Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute. Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute. 218 / 300 Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes. Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes. 219 / 300 The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 2 J/kg. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed. 220 / 300 Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating unstable SVT. a. True b. False Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT. Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT. 221 / 300 The recommended compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute. a. True b. False Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue. Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue. 222 / 300 High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%. a. True b. False Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes. Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes. 223 / 300 The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV. a. True b. False Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways. Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways. 224 / 300 Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia. 225 / 300 Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole. a. True b. False Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion. Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion. 226 / 300 Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity. a. True b. False Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia. Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia. 227 / 300 PETCO2 monitoring can help assess the effectiveness of chest compressions. a. True b. False Incorrect. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation. Correct. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation. 228 / 300 The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO. a. True b. False Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children. Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children. 229 / 300 Defibrillation energy for adult cardiac arrest typically starts at 360 J. a. True b. False Incorrect. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines. Correct. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines. 230 / 300 The initial treatment for unstable bradycardia is atropine. a. True b. False Incorrect. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block. Correct. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block. 231 / 300 A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is recommended for two-rescuer pediatric CPR. a. True b. False Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR. Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR. 232 / 300 Hypothermia is one of the "H's" in the reversible causes of cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes. Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes. 233 / 300 Amiodarone is the first-line drug for treating ventricular fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts. Correct. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts. 234 / 300 The ideal pulse check duration during CPR is 10-15 seconds. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. 235 / 300 Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. a. True b. False Incorrect. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration. Correct. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration. 236 / 300 During advanced airway management, breaths should be delivered every 6-8 seconds. a. True b. False Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway. Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway. 237 / 300 The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists. 238 / 300 ROSC stands for Return of Circulation Success. a. True b. False Incorrect. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm. Correct. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm. 239 / 300 Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse. Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse. 240 / 300 The correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of atrial fibrillation is 120-200 J. a. True b. False Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization. Correct. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization. 241 / 300 The recommended oxygen saturation target during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%. a. True b. False Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage. Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage. 242 / 300 Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion. Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion. 243 / 300 Ventricular fibrillation is considered a shockable rhythm. a. True b. False Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm. 244 / 300 The recommended chest compression depth for infants is at least 2 inches. a. True b. False Incorrect. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm). Correct. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm). 245 / 300 Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA). a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation. Correct. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation. 246 / 300 Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes. a. True b. False Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes. Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes. 247 / 300 The correct dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT is 0.1 mg/kg IV. a. True b. False Incorrect. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways. Correct. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways. 248 / 300 During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue. a. True b. False Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue. Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue. 249 / 300 PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR suggest effective chest compressions. a. True b. False Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR. Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR. 250 / 300 Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm in ACLS. a. True b. False Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration. Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration. 251 / 300 The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO. a. True b. False Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT. 252 / 300 A compression fraction of >60% is recommended for high-quality CPR. a. True b. False Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% is required to maximize perfusion and improve survival rates during high-quality CPR. Correct. A compression fraction >80% is required to maximize perfusion and improve survival rates during high-quality CPR. 253 / 300 Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients with narrow-complex SVT. a. True b. False Incorrect. Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients; synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice in such cases. Correct. Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients; synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice in such cases. 254 / 300 ROSC should be followed by immediate optimization of oxygenation and ventilation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on optimizing oxygenation, ventilation, and hemodynamic stability to prevent further organ damage. Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on optimizing oxygenation, ventilation, and hemodynamic stability to prevent further organ damage. 255 / 300 Hypoglycemia is included in the reversible causes of cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. While hypoglycemia can cause critical symptoms, it is not included in the H's and T's of reversible causes of cardiac arrest. Correct. While hypoglycemia can cause critical symptoms, it is not included in the H's and T's of reversible causes of cardiac arrest. 256 / 300 Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter. a. True b. False Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter. 257 / 300 The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J. a. True b. False Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively. Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively. 258 / 300 Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR. a. True b. False Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute. Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute. 259 / 300 The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 15:2. a. True b. False Incorrect. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation. Correct. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation. 260 / 300 Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA). a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation. Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation. 261 / 300 The recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation is 2 J/kg. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm. 262 / 300 Lidocaine is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases. Correct. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases. 263 / 300 Defibrillation should be attempted within 30 seconds for a witnessed VF arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm. Correct. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm. 264 / 300 During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted. a. True b. False Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately. Correct. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately. 265 / 300 The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 5 mg. a. True b. False Incorrect. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes. Correct. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes. 266 / 300 Hypothermia is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes. a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures. Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures. 267 / 300 Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest. Correct. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest. 268 / 300 The recommended compression depth for child CPR is 1/3 the depth of the chest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs. Correct. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs. 269 / 300 Adenosine is the drug of choice for pulseless electrical activity (PEA). a. True b. False Incorrect. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes. Correct. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes. 270 / 300 The target PETCO2 during effective chest compressions is >10 mmHg. a. True b. False Incorrect. A PETCO2 level greater than 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating adequate blood flow. Correct. A PETCO2 level greater than 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating adequate blood flow. 271 / 300 Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. a. True b. False Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF. 272 / 300 Naloxone should be administered to all cardiac arrest patients. a. True b. False Incorrect. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest. Correct. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest. 273 / 300 Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm. Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm. 274 / 300 ROSC is defined as the return of a detectable pulse and effective blood circulation. a. True b. False Incorrect. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival. Correct. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival. 275 / 300 The compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer pediatric CPR is 15:2. a. True b. False Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients. Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients. 276 / 300 Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized. Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized. 277 / 300 A jaw-thrust maneuver is preferred over a head tilt-chin lift for trauma patients. a. True b. False Incorrect. The jaw-thrust avoids neck movement, making it the preferred airway technique for patients with suspected cervical spine injuries. Correct. The jaw-thrust avoids neck movement, making it the preferred airway technique for patients with suspected cervical spine injuries. 278 / 300 The goal oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care is 100%. a. True b. False Incorrect. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury. Correct. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury. 279 / 300 PETCO2 monitoring is used to confirm effective ventilation and chest compressions. a. True b. False Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR. Correct. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR. 280 / 300 Defibrillation is contraindicated in patients with ventricular fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm. Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm. 281 / 300 The initial dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults is 12 mg IV. a. True b. False Incorrect. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses. Correct. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses. 282 / 300 The recommended compression rate for CPR is 90-100 compressions per minute. a. True b. False Incorrect. The correct compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute to optimize perfusion and prevent fatigue. Correct. The correct compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute to optimize perfusion and prevent fatigue. 283 / 300 Asystole requires immediate defibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration. Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration. 284 / 300 Hypokalemia is included in the "H's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes. a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest. Correct. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest. 285 / 300 Continuous compressions should be provided during CPR with an advanced airway in place. a. True b. False Incorrect. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute. Correct. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute. 286 / 300 The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 15:2. a. True b. False Incorrect. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2. Correct. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2. 287 / 300 The target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) is 32-36°C. a. True b. False Incorrect. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C. Correct. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C. 288 / 300 ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation. Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation. 289 / 300 The appropriate initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 150 mg IV/IO. a. True b. False Incorrect. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed. Correct. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed. 290 / 300 Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF. a. True b. False Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes. Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes. 291 / 300 The recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%. a. True b. False Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% prevents hypoxia and avoids complications associated with hyperoxia. Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% prevents hypoxia and avoids complications associated with hyperoxia. 292 / 300 Amiodarone and lidocaine are both used for refractory VF during cardiac arrest. a. True b. False Incorrect. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT. Correct. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT. 293 / 300 The maximum time for a pulse check during CPR is 10 seconds. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. 294 / 300 Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial fibrillation. a. True b. False Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity. Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore organized electrical activity. 295 / 300 The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 1 mg/kg IV/IO. a. True b. False Incorrect. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg. Correct. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg. 296 / 300 Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes. a. True b. False Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes. Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes. 297 / 300 The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 4 J/kg. a. True b. False Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed. Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed. 298 / 300 Adenosine is used for the treatment of wide-complex tachycardia. a. True b. False Incorrect. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone. Correct. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone. 299 / 300 Hypovolemia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA). a. True b. False Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation. Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation. 300 / 300 The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute. a. True b. False Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway. Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway. Your score isThe average score is 0% By WordPress Quiz plugin